C-HRHFC-2405 New Practice Questions | SAP C-HRHFC-2405 Study Demo - Photoexperienceacademy
- Name: SAP Certified Associate - Implementation Consultant - SAP SuccessFactors Full Cloud/Core Hybrid
- Exam Code: C-HRHFC-2405
- Certification: C-HRHFC-2405
- Vendor: SAP
- Total Question: 630
- Price: 49$
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NEW QUESTION: 1
How do you compensate for the technical clearingaccount NOT balancing in a accounts approach for parallel valuation?
A. By running the monthly depreciation posting.
B. By maintaining the offset account in the asset account determination.
C. By entering manual corrective clearing transfer postings.
D. By running the periodic acquisition and production cost posting.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 2
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server along with a Microsoft Azure SQL Database database.
For both servers, you need to grant users the ability to create logins and create databases.
You need to determine which permission to grant users in each instance.
Which permission or permissions should you choose? (To answer, drag the appropriate permission or permissions to their corresponding instance type or types in the answer area.
Answer choices may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Answer targets may be used once or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION: 3
A risk analyst working for an asset manager with a large debt portfolio is tasked with determining the suitability of using a traded debt ETF as a hedge against the value of the debt portfolio. He/she calculates the minimum variance hedge ratio to be exactly 1.0.
Given the above facts, which of the following statements are certainly true:
I. The ETF represents a perfect hedge for the portfolio
II. The volatility of the portfolio is the same as that for the ETF
III. The ETF cannot be used as an effective hedge for the debt portfolio IV. None of the above
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. IV only
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The minimum variance hedge ratio is effectively the beta between the asset to be hedged and the asset used as a hedge, calculated as [correlation between the hedge and the asset to be hedged x volatility of the asset to be hedged/volatility of the hedge].The effectiveness of the hedge depends upon the correlation between the two, ie the asset to be hedged and the hedge. The minimum variance hedge ratio can be 1.0 even in situations where the correlation between the asset and the hedge is low, and as such does not mean much unless we know the hedge effectiveness (ie, the correlation).
It is therefore not possible to draw any certain conclusions based on the minimum variance hedge ratio alone.
IV therefore is the only correct answer.
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